New here?
Create an account to submit posts, participate in discussions and chat with people.
Sign up
>Well, for one thing, he didn’t do the holocaust. He could have and he should have, but he didn’t because he was a Jew-loving faggot. Secondly, he refused to kill Anglos, despite also having the ability to kill them in vast quantities. Instead of killing Jews and Anglos, like an intelligent person would have, Hitler just killed millions of Russians and Germans, which benefited Britain and the USA. He was one of the biggest dipshits in history, honestly.

- comment from https://www.unz.com/article/whats-wrong-with-hitler

Lol
You are viewing a single comment's thread. View all
bobbacringo on scored.co
1 day ago 3 points (+0 / -0 / +3Score on mirror ) 1 child
So it's a bastardized version of the term to refer to all of the British Empire rather than who the Angles actually were. Historical inaccuracies piss me off. Like how the kikes claim to be the ancient jews.
devotech2 on scored.co
13 hours ago 2 points (+0 / -0 / +2Score on mirror ) 2 children
Anglo is a shorthand for "English", term which itself omits any connection to the saxons. The angles were culturally dominant over the saxons, both were culturally dominant over the jutes and frisians. England is the "land of angles", no mention of the saxons. Although, ironically, England exists as a unified country with the name "England" because of the very much saxon-founded Wessex. I think it's largely just because the angles had a name with a prefix that's easier to use than the saxons did. And by that point they were already well integrated with each other anyways. It's kind of similar to how almost everything relating to Spain has a connection to Castilla rather than Aragón despite the fact that spain is both of these.

But anyways, "anglo" isn't a false term to use for someone who is english or of English descent. Nor is it necessarily false to call countries that were predominantly founded and settled by English people and which have English customs, such as America or Australia, "anglo" either. Like how Hispanic can be used for spain (although rare, it qualifies as Hispanic) or Mexico or Argentina all the same despite the fact that these countries have little in common apart from being culturally descended from Castilla ultimately (and Castilla is virtually synonymous with spain)

Furthermore, I consider that Israel must be destroyed
bobbacringo on scored.co
8 hours ago 1 point (+0 / -0 / +1Score on mirror )
That was a good explanation. I appreciate that.
WeedleTLiar on scored.co
7 hours ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
It's a problem in that it focuses on language (culture) alone and completely ignores race, which is at least as important.

It's also worth noting that the aristocracy is heavily Norman (French Norsemen) on top of all the other ethnicities.

I don't mind using a term that doesn't explicitely mention Saxons, but I don't like Anglo just because of it's ambiguity, especially when talking about the "Anglo-sphere" (not unlike the use of Hispanic to mean metizos).
devotech2 on scored.co
7 hours ago 0 points (+0 / -0 )
The difference is that the "anglosphere" was almost entirely *actually* anglo (with the exception of the very large numbers of not-anglo white Americans) for many years. Only some countries in the hispanosphere can be properly called "hispanic" by race, although even the white Hispanic countries that aren't spain have very large Italian descended communities in particular, along with germans. In some cases outnumbering the white spanish communities there. Although even there you have a selection bias towards more "exotic" European ethnicities than Spaniards, like how Americans underreport english ancestry. So the actual number of Spaniards is hard to say.

Furthermore, I consider that Israel must be destroyed
Toast message