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jack445566778899 on scored.co
1 year ago3 points(+0/-0/+3Score on mirror)2 children
This is a valid use of the english language. This is the equivalent to claiming "the glass is half full" is the only right way to say it, and ridiculing those who say "the glass is half empty".
Well, retard, you're wrong. "Illiterate" means "unable to read", and "not literate" means that a person has not read enough of the right literature. Often there is a bit more context involved with the latter, such as, "Frank is not literate in [something]", but it can also be used without extra context, and is then usually more of a judgement of a person's level of well-read-ness.
> "Illiterate" means "unable to read", and "not literate" means that a person has not read enough of the right literature
Fascinating distinction. I don't see any reason for that to be the case semantically (and the definition of literate makes that clear), but i can appreciate that it is nonetheless colloquially true.
"Not literate" still **literally** means "not able to read", even if colloquially/idiomatically it has another connotation.
"Ill", the prefix, is "bad/sick". This includes all magnitudes, from a little to all the way bad.
The question i have is, why don't you think they are interchangeable?
Spoken like a true intellectual.
> "Illiterate" means "unable to read", and "not literate" means that a person has not read enough of the right literature
Fascinating distinction. I don't see any reason for that to be the case semantically (and the definition of literate makes that clear), but i can appreciate that it is nonetheless colloquially true.
"Not literate" still **literally** means "not able to read", even if colloquially/idiomatically it has another connotation.
or semi-automatic.
or semi-final.
If illiterate means : completely unable to read and semi means partial, then what is wrong with saying "partially unable to read"?