In Revelation 7 Jesus puts his mark of protection on 144,000 Jews from the 12 tribes of Israel. This will protect them from the 5th trumpet that unleashes locusts that look like horses with human faces and female hair and crowns and breastplates of iron and tails with stingers like scorpions.
These monsters torture everyone except those 144,000 Jews that were protected by the seal. It is then revealed that these 144,000 are all Jewish incels, and they have been redeemed.
So why did Jesus decide to save these Jews, and not the goyim?
This is odd. Also odd is that the only time the goyim are especially mentioned in this book is in Revelation 11:1-2. These verses say that the goyim are not admitted in the temple of God with "its worshipers" (which are presumably all Jews). The goyim are left outside and treated differently.
This reminds me of Matthew 15:24-26, where Jesus refers to us goyim as dogs.
I think the goyim can still be saved (at least those who let themselves be killed in the name of Christ - it's unclear if other goyim will also be saved), but why does Jesus give special privileges for the Jews?
Judah -- the jews -- is only one of 12 tribes. As far as the tribes go, they are bottom-rung, because their kingship was revoked when Jesus was born. It is only the tribe of Joseph that has any promise at all. Joseph received a greater blessing than Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. It says so in the Bible. So the other tribes have no part with Joseph when it comes to the promises.
And read the first few chapters -- it's clear that the jews lost their place as inheritors of God's blessings when they rejected Jesus. ONLY Christians have access to the blessings God promised Israel and Joseph.
The nations who God punishes in Revelation are the people who reject Jesus, including the jews or whatever they call themselves. The people living in Jerusalem at the time of Christ's coming are condemned by God. The two prophets are sent to reclaim them one last time, and how were they received by the unrepentant jews?
In Matthew 15, Jesus explains that he was sent FIRST to the tribes of Israel and so he can't bless the Gentiles until after he fulfills his mission. However, she, understanding what the scriptures truly teach about the Gentiles, presses Jesus after Jesus explains that the dogs eat AFTER the children eat, and for her faith, he blesses her. If anything, it is obvious that Jesus is refuting the caricature that Gentiles will not be blessed of Jesus.
The only special privilege that the house of Israel has is that Jesus will come to them first. Jesus said "The first will be last, and the last will be first." I interpret that to mean that even though he went to the Israelites first, they rejected him (most of them at least) and so he went to the Gentiles, who accepted him. And so because the Gentiles accepted him, THEY ARE NOW CHIEF above the Israelites who rejected him.
Read about Peter's vision of the unclean food. Read everything Paul wrote and look carefully how he regards his lineage as a descendant of Israel. Note carefully in Romans how he explains that the Israelites REJECTED the covenant, and now the GENTILES are receiving it.
Not true, there are at least two cases (Paul and Mordecai) of people referred to as "Jews" who come from other tribes.
In any case, 12,000 of the privileged chosen ones in Revelation are from the tribe of Judah.
The word for a descendant of Judah would be Judahite in English. Notably, that word is never used. Instead the Greek specifically spells out "descended from Judah", IE, when it mentions the lineage of Jesus.
Thus the word "jew" in the Bible cannot mean someone descended from Judah, but instead someone living in that region at that time.