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In Revelation 7 Jesus puts his mark of protection on 144,000 Jews from the 12 tribes of Israel. This will protect them from the 5th trumpet that unleashes locusts that look like horses with human faces and female hair and crowns and breastplates of iron and tails with stingers like scorpions.
These monsters torture everyone except those 144,000 Jews that were protected by the seal. It is then revealed that these 144,000 are all Jewish incels, and they have been redeemed.

So why did Jesus decide to save these Jews, and not the goyim?

This is odd. Also odd is that the only time the goyim are especially mentioned in this book is in Revelation 11:1-2. These verses say that the goyim are not admitted in the temple of God with "its worshipers" (which are presumably all Jews). The goyim are left outside and treated differently.
This reminds me of Matthew 15:24-26, where Jesus refers to us goyim as dogs.

I think the goyim can still be saved (at least those who let themselves be killed in the name of Christ - it's unclear if other goyim will also be saved), but why does Jesus give special privileges for the Jews?


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yudsfpbc on scored.co
1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
The word in the Greek translates more correctly to "judean", which refers to someone living in the Roman province of Judea.

The word for a descendant of Judah would be Judahite in English. Notably, that word is never used. Instead the Greek specifically spells out "descended from Judah", IE, when it mentions the lineage of Jesus.

Thus the word "jew" in the Bible cannot mean someone descended from Judah, but instead someone living in that region at that time.
HimmlerWasRight88 on scored.co
1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 )
This is just not true. In the book of Esther Mordecai is called a Jew because he descends from one of the 12 tribes, even if he lives in Susa (which is very far away from the region of Judea).
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