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TallestSkil on scored.co
6 hours ago2 points(+0/-0/+2Score on mirror)2 children
Mmm… I’m not sure I trust the source of a book written by a jew. I’d need more context than simply “this book said it.” The Haitian Revolution happened, in part, because of the sheer number of mulattos who had not only wealth in French colonial society, but also political and social power.
The Napoleonic changes aside (because those are easily verifiable), the existence of the Metis and the Caribbean mulattos don’t make me think these decrees were ever enforced.
None of the colonial powers really enforced any racial doctrine at all. Not even the British colonies in NA (look at the fact that all blacks are technically mulattos). The only reason that the US and canada ended up white vs most of south and Central America is because of the very low native population density up north combined with the fact that the brits wanted to move a fuckton of "undesirables" to the colonies, but even in the extreme south of SA from south Brazil down it's also majority white because of the same reason. Such laws are also almost impossible to actually enforce on subjects across the Atlantic Ocean.
Spain and portugal had low population densities and little political and social turmoil. They could not send people to the colonies that did not exist, hence why their colonies in general had so many more mixed race people. Britain had high population density and a whole lot of native political violence and social upheaval, hence why so many British people fucked off to North America. France was somewhere in between both at home but France was unique in already being moribund by the time it started establishing colonies, the power of medieval France was already gone and it was irrelevant compared to Spain, portugal, and England. The medieval superpowers of france and the HRE lost theie grip on everything with the rise of colonialism. France always struggled to keep up (*in comparison*, which is an important thing to note. Not that france was completely gone, rather that they werent much compared to the 3 formerly second rate polities of western europe). No one in France believed in the colonial dream, so few people moved anywhere. I don't know how France even expected to make this law a thing, France probably had the fewest white colonialists in their colonies out of everyone.
Furthermore, I consider that Israel must be destroyed
The Napoleonic changes aside (because those are easily verifiable), the existence of the Metis and the Caribbean mulattos don’t make me think these decrees were ever enforced.
Spain and portugal had low population densities and little political and social turmoil. They could not send people to the colonies that did not exist, hence why their colonies in general had so many more mixed race people. Britain had high population density and a whole lot of native political violence and social upheaval, hence why so many British people fucked off to North America. France was somewhere in between both at home but France was unique in already being moribund by the time it started establishing colonies, the power of medieval France was already gone and it was irrelevant compared to Spain, portugal, and England. The medieval superpowers of france and the HRE lost theie grip on everything with the rise of colonialism. France always struggled to keep up (*in comparison*, which is an important thing to note. Not that france was completely gone, rather that they werent much compared to the 3 formerly second rate polities of western europe). No one in France believed in the colonial dream, so few people moved anywhere. I don't know how France even expected to make this law a thing, France probably had the fewest white colonialists in their colonies out of everyone.
Furthermore, I consider that Israel must be destroyed