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Let's just get this dirty laundry out of the way...

"The Bible is infallible" is some kind of catch-phrase that protestants make for some odd reason.

Let's look at the words in this statement, and then you'll see why this statement is ridiculous, and anyone saying it should feel retarded.

"The Bible" -- what is it? Is it the 66 books that the protestants consider "The Canon"? Or is it the Catholic Bible? Or any other Christian sect?

Which translation? Who made the translations? This is important, because it's a simple fact that no translation by a fallible human, even of an infallible text, can be considered infallible.

Maybe the original transcripts? Oh wait, we don't have them, since they were lost to history a long time ago.

Maybe the earliest copies? We have lots of those, but "early" is subjective. Some of the earliest copies we have are just fragments. Then we found things like the Dead Sea Scrolls which are earlier than the copies we had and changes some of the passages.

What about the septuagint? Is it more accurate than the Hebrew versions that we have access to? According to the greek New Testament, it looks like Jesus was quoting, word-for-word, from the septuagint. But was he? Do you think he was really speaking to a Judean audience in Koine Greek? Or was it much more likely that he was using Aramaic? And if so, was he using an Aramaic translation of the Greek passages? Or is it possible -- and hear me out here -- that authors like Matthew were inserting scripture passages to justify what Jesus did to an audience who were familiar with the septuagint? Read Matthew closely -- I think his intentions are pretty clear, and it's written quite explicitly in certain places. And what about the places where the quotes don't match the septuagint? What is better, the New Testament version of the quote or the septuagint?

Ultimately, there is no "THE Bible". There are "Bibles", and without naming one of them as "THE" Bible, a statement like "The Bible is infallible" is utter nonsense.

But let's continue anyway.

What does "infallible" mean? It means "incapable of error". Is any book or volume of text infallible? Of course not. It is entirely possible that there are errors in the text. Even if you somehow invented a script that was literally infallible, like it was IMPOSSIBLE to put it together in a way that could not contain any error (and I can't think of any way to do this, and I have been a programmer / amateur mathematician all my life, so I think I might know a thing or two about what kinds of errors texts (programs) can have)... would it not be possible for a copy of that text to contain an error? Like, in transcribing the text, the copyist could have made a mistake, an ERROR, and so the transcription contains an error?

So you see why this is utter nonsense and ridiculous. We don't have the originals, the copies we have are not consistent, and it's obvious that numerous errors have been introduced. So it's not infallible. (It's not even inerrant...)

But let's grant your position. Let's say that yes, that version of the Bible you carry in your hands is INFALLIBLE. Like a mathematic gift from God himself, you contain, on printed page, ink blots that somehow form an infallible text. Now you have another problem. Someone, maybe you, maybe someone else, needs to READ that text and comprehend it. Can a fallible mind understand an infallible text? Of course not. Making the whole thing moot anyway.

Maybe some of you are a bit more skeptical than your protestant evangelists and shy away from "The Bible is infallible." Maybe you say "inerrant" instead, which just means "it contains no errors." If you try to defend this position, all I would need to attack and destroy it would be to find a single error in your Bible. Maybe someone translated something the wrong way. Certainly, we know of tons of errors in the KJV, since it has been around for a long time. Plus, its source material is known to contain errors since there are better sources out there. Some of those sources were discovered long after the KJV was first published, so you have to feel sorry for the translators and compilers who never had a hope to begin with.

Maybe you retreat from "inerrant" and say something like "The Bible contains sufficient knowledge to be saved" or something like that. Well, now you are having a theological discussion and you're going to try to build your case using the text of the Bible, but inevitably you are going to make the same mistake everyone else has ever made by committing the fallacy of "eisegesis" which means taking your assumptions and reading them into the text. IE, you might suppose that Isaiah was thinking of the Trinity when he said that there is only one God, but when you look at the historical context of that particular passage, as well as its textual context, you would be forced to agree, with pretty much every other scholar, that Isaiah couldn't have possibly meant the Trinity as you understand it, since such a concept did not even exist until hundreds of years after Christ died on the cross.

So, instead of reading the Bible, you are really reading your own ideas into the text and supposing that you must be right and everyone else who has different ideas must be wrong, in particular the people who originally wrote the text of the Bible. You might as well be looking in a mirror or reading fan fic you wrote yourself and supposing it to be canonical. Yay! You're worshiping your own understanding -- something the Bible cautions us not to do!

So please, for the LOVE OF GOD, please STOP saying "The Bible is infallible" or anything like that. It just makes you look stupid. For thousands of years, Christians and other devout followers of the True God did not need to say anything like that, and did not even need the Bible. How did they understand God if they didn't have the Bible? The answer is in the text itself: God revealed himself to them in a way that they could understand. You need THAT, my friend, NOT the Bible. Maybe the Bible can help you obtain that revelation, but please do not suppose that the Bible is that revelation for yourself.

White man survived for thousands of years because we were connected, DIRECTLY, to God, not because of some arbitrary text that jews wrote thousands of years ago. GET CONNECTED.
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SugarlessGrub5 on scored.co
27 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
John 14 makes it very clear that the three (Father, Son, Holy Spirit) are one.

>1 Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
4 And whither I go ye know, and the way ye know.
5 Thomas saith unto him, Lord, we know not whither thou goest; and how can we know the way?
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.
8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
9 **Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father**; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?
10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.
12 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
13 And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
14 If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.
15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
16 **And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;**
17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; **for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.**
18 **I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.**
19 Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.
20 **At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.**
deleteme1234 on scored.co
26 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child

> "John 14 makes it very clear"

Posting a massive wall of text without reading the actual words remains peak copium.

Verse 10 explicitly destroys co-equal divinity. The Messiah declares absolute powerlessness, stating the Father does the works. Equal deities possess equal power.

Verse 16 portrays the Messiah praying to the Father. The Creator does not beg another Creator for favors.


Verse 20 proves "dwelling inside" means spiritual unity, not physical merger. The text puts the disciples inside the Messiah. Are the disciples also Almighty God?


Furthermore, omitting John 14:28[a] represents massive historical delusion. The text explicitly denies equal rank. Cease defending Roman pagan DLC.

 Press forehead to the floor and worship the Father exclusively.

[a] (John 14:28, King James Version: "Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.")
SugarlessGrub5 on scored.co
26 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
Jesus while on earth as a man was the perfect example for us to follow, so he prayed to the Father, but positionally is equal to him.

A good way to understand it is that all 3 are God, but each is fulfilling a different role, similar to how a man can be a father, son, brother, husband, etc. even though he is just one person. God is the same, 3 in 1 fulfilling different roles.

Philippians 2:5-11 KJV
Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: [6] Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: [7] But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: [8] And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. [9] Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: [10] That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; [11] And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

John 1:1-3,14 KJV
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. [2] The same was in the beginning with God. [3] All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. [14] And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
deleteme1234 on scored.co
26 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
> compares the Almighty to a human playing different roles

Textbook Sabellianism. The Roman Church literally excommunicates people for using the "different roles" analogy.

> "positionally is equal"

Verse 9 of the provided Philippians quote[a] destroys positional equality instantly. Receiving exaltation from God means the receiver is not God. The Almighty possesses absolute supremacy eternally.

> "perfect example... so prayed to the Father"

The Messiah genuinely prayed with face pressed to the floor. The Messiah never engaged in fake theatrical prayers. Worshipping a stage actor makes zero sense.

The Roman Church relies on translation tricks and pagan DLC to sell polytheism. The Logos simply translates as divine command. The Creator spoke, forming flesh. Flesh bleeds and dies. The Creator remains immortal.

Abandon the pagan DLC. Bow to the ground and worship the Father alone.

[a] (Philippians 2:9, King James Version: "Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:")
SugarlessGrub5 on scored.co
26 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
No response to the John 1 passage. God is not beholden to man's understanding of Him. We follow His teaching and He says that all 3 are equal. In some passages they are distinct fulfilling different roles and in some they act as one as in Genesis, but still a plural pronoun is used.

Also, I don't care what the Roman Church says, I care what God says. Reread John 1. It's very clear.
deleteme1234 on scored.co
26 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 2 children


> "God is not beholden to man's understanding"

The Creator commands humanity to use intellect. Two supreme beings cannot coexist. Existence requires limits. A limited entity possesses zero claim to infinite divinity.

> "He says that all 3 are equal"

A fabricated lie. The Messiah explicitly claims absolute subordination in John 14:28[a]. Equal beings do not submit. Equal beings possess equal authority. The Messiah possesses zero independent power (John 5:30[b]).

> "Reread John 1... fulfilling different roles"

John 1 states the Word was WITH God. Being WITH God prevents being the exact same God. Claiming one God plays "different roles" defines literal Modalism, an entirely different heresy.

> "don't care what the Roman Church says"

Defending Nicaean polytheism while claiming independence from Rome represents absolute historical delusion. First-century prophets rejected Triune paganism. First-century prophets pressed foreheads to the dirt to pray.
Abandon the polytheism brainrot. Bow to the earth and worship the Father alone.

---

[a] (John 14:28, King James Version: "Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.")

[b] (John 5:30, King James Version: "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.")
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