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>long term decline despite its imperial wealth

Hahaha no. Spain declined because more than a few of its kings were really fucking bad with money and put spain in endless debt to fund its forever wars with... everyone. Guess who issued the loans? Don't even need to guess, you already know.

After about 100 years of relative prosperity, we entered the period of decline where the treasure ships that sailed into Cádiz and Sevilla provided almost none of that gold and silver to the Spanish (common people or even the nobility) and those ships would leave port and that gold would end up in the hands of Dutch and Italian jews (who lent the Spanish kings their endless money)

Eventually the kings stopped being able to even pay the debt and the state lost all of its money. Bankers stopped lending to spanish kings because they always defaulted on loans (because the shipments of gold were constantly plundered). But spain still had endless wars to go fight, so the monarchs bled out money anyways. This led to the decline as a colonial power against England and a continental power against France. This also led to a massive wealth disparity (the middle class did not exist in any capacity, the aristocracy did not have much more than the peasantry because they never saw that money either, and the peasantry was the peasantry. There was no industrial class). And then that, in turn, led to a complete lack of industrialization as a direct result of the non-existence of the bourgeoisie, which made Spain almost entirely irrelevant by the 1700s.

Spain would pretty much have no bourgeoisie or industrialization at all until the fucking 1960s. This decline affected spain so badly that it was completely humiliated by the americans in the Spanish American War, which happened before america was even remotely relevant or powerful at all. But america had an industry and spain still didn't because spain did not have the money for its existence. The entirety of the 1800s was the Spanish century of humiliation. It's a damned miracle that spain was even able to eek out an existence and keep most of its empire from the 1600s-1800s because the cracks were already turning into gaping holes by the 30 years war.

So, in fact, it was a combination of kings who were dogshit with money (admittedly not the jews fault) and the jews who preyed on spain in particular with incredibly predatory loans. So, it is actually the opposite, the re-emergence of the relevance of the jews in spain actually directly caused the collapse of the empire. English piracy also played a very large role. Especially around the time when the armada became weaker (because the state could not throw money at it anymore) and the english presence on the seas became much more paramount (because the english had money to throw at privateers and the navy)

Furthermore, I consider that Israel must be destroyed