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posted 1 year ago by GoldenInnosStatue on scored.co (+0 / -0 / +24Score on mirror )
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TakenusernameA on scored.co
1 year ago 2 points (+0 / -0 / +2Score on mirror ) 2 children
No, YVWH is literally the Essential Being (its in the Name), the jews actually dont believe in that because theyre Gnostics who believe the Essential Being was fractured in Creation. Jesus isnt really quoted as referring His Father as YVWH because that is the personal name of God, and by that time, no one used It out of reverence, and no one could even pronounce it. The Ancient Jews were not speaking Hebrew by Christ's time, it was Greek, Aramaic, and Latin. Furthermore, most translations of the Bible dont use YVWH because a zealous Hebrew Scribe edited the Name out of the texts out of fear people would Blaspheme His Name.
dylan on scored.co
1 year ago 1 point (+0 / -0 / +1Score on mirror ) 1 child
Small correction: the learned jews would have been able to read Hebrew as the Torah/Septuagint would have been written in Hebrew. Greek would have been primarily spoken by the upper caste of the jews. Based off how we see Christ in the gospels, it is highly likely he spoke Aramaic as his primary language, but was at least fluent enough in Latin to communicate with the Roman Centurion (who most likely would have not known enough Aramaic to fully converse with Jesus). He also would have been able to read/speak Hebrew but most likely would not have used it in day to day life. Potentially he only used Hebrew when speaking with the more powerful priestly jews like the sadducees/pharisees. Jesus would possibly have known enough Greek to speak with a client for business as he was a carpenter, but most likely he didn’t know Greek.



TL;DR: Average jew in Roman-occupied Palestine would most likely only have been able to speak Aramaic and most likely Latin. More learned jews would have been able to speak Hebrew in addition. The elites would have known Greek in addition to the rest.
BlueDrache on scored.co
1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
You're viewing Jesus' command or lack of command of language from a human perspective.

The dude walked on water and returned from the dead.

Language is a small barrier.
dylan on scored.co
1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
Well seeing as Christ was the God-man with dual natures, yes he could have used his divine nature to speak whatever language he needed to as evidenced by the gift of tongues shown in Acts.

 I was giving a more historical look at an average jewish citizen at the time and which languages they would have been able to speak. I used Jesus as the exemplar because he would have truly come from an “Everyman” background. Also it was a soft rebuttal of you saying the jews of his time would not have been able to read/speak Hebrew. They would have, or at least the slightly more learned class would have been able to.
BlueDrache on scored.co
1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 )
Wasn't I who said they could or couldn't speak Hebrew.
deleted 1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
TakenusernameA on scored.co
1 year ago 1 point (+0 / -0 / +1Score on mirror ) 1 child
The bible literally mentions His Name every time it says "God", YVWH was translated to "God" and "Lord" out of respect.
deleted 1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
TakenusernameA on scored.co
1 year ago 1 point (+0 / -0 / +1Score on mirror ) 1 child
Wherever He refers to His Father as God, He is referring to the God of the Old Testament.
deleted 1 year ago 0 points (+0 / -0 )
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