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TakenusernameA on scored.co
1 year ago8 points(+0/-0/+8Score on mirror)
Before he got jewpilled by his own mistake, *yes*.
He literally removed entire books that werent in the (((masoretic text))) from his "canon" in an attempt to pander to the jews and other philo-semites. Of course, it failed miserably, because the Synagogue of Satan had no intention of converting, and this is probably what jewpilled him. Just because someone becomes jewpilled later in life (and in Luther's case, it was *far too late*) doesnt mean they were earlier in life. In fact, Hitler himself admits he was a normie-con up until the war who had no issue with the jews at all and didn't really make the connection until he ended up in the city and was surrounded by (((bolshevism))).
He literally removed entire books that werent in the (((masoretic text))) from his "canon" in an attempt to pander to the jews and other philo-semites. Of course, it failed miserably, because the Synagogue of Satan had no intention of converting, and this is probably what jewpilled him. Just because someone becomes jewpilled later in life (and in Luther's case, it was *far too late*) doesnt mean they were earlier in life. In fact, Hitler himself admits he was a normie-con up until the war who had no issue with the jews at all and didn't really make the connection until he ended up in the city and was surrounded by (((bolshevism))).