I've heard the jew side of the story endlessly. I want to hear the Nazi side of the story.
I understand the punitive nature of the treaty of Versillies, the loss of territory and hyperinflation. Based on that it seems reasonable thet Nazi Germany would break the treaty. Maybe even taking back the territory in Poland. But what was the justification for pushing further into Poland? And for the invasion of France? The way I see it the French had adopted a defensive posture at that point, as evidenced by the Maginot line. Why did the the Germans invade?
Also wondering what the justification for betraying the Russians was? I don't buy the jew argument which just says that Hitler thought the Russians would be easy to defeat due to their racial inferiority.
The goal for taking France was to do it quickly and decisively, to put pressure on Britain to accept agreeable terms and prevent a war on two fronts. Churchill's intransigence made sure that Vichy France continued to be a hotbed of trouble long into the war.
Despite the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact in effect, Russian troops were being built up against the border for an inevitable expansion by the USSR. They were fighting over the Baltic states and Hitler saw the clash as inevitable and chose to strike first. As for the "inferiority," Hitler was actually surprised at the initial victories.
Hitler's War and The War Path: Hitler's Germany 1933-1939 by David Irving are the best scholarship on this matter, entirely based on military records, diaries, and other primary sources.