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posted 10 days ago by derjudenjager on scored.co (+0 / -0 / +34Score on mirror )
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Knight_Of_Saint_John on scored.co
7 days ago 0 points (+0 / -0 ) 1 child
If Tolkien disowned his bageldriller son, how come he got the rights to the LOTR franchise?

Didn't he had other sons or just that one?
revtreynine on scored.co
4 days ago 1 point (+0 / -0 / +1Score on mirror )
JRR Tolkien didn't disown him he was dead. His son Christopher who painstakingly edited and combined and published JRR's backstory (Silmirilion) disowned HIS son. Simon the lawyer took over the estate after and the next owner will be jewish. Either his wife or his jewish raised son who wrote some play about the holohoax.

Christopher would not allow ANY further Hollywood productions etc and it all happened post death. Garbage site, who constantly tries to make Christopher the bad guy but you can see that he HATED any further Hollywood adaptations/fan fiction.
https://www.theonering.net/torwp/2013/01/07/68174-concerning-christopher-an-essay-on-tolkiens-sons-decision-to-not-allow-further-cinematic-licensing-of-his-work/

Christopher was basically the best son Tolkien could have had.
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