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genesisSOC on scored.co
16 days ago0 points(+0/-0)1 child
Septuagint isn't unjewed, either. You have to study all versions and the original text and fit all the truth together in different pieces. There is no "one unjewed version"
How is that possible when it's in a modern language and translation like today's English? For example let's look at the famous Galatians 3:28:
>"*There is no Jew nor Greek nor is there slave nor free nor is there male and female. For you all are one in Christ Jesus.*" - Galatians 3:28
Yet Paul never said or wrote "jew." He said Ἰουδαῖος. Not jew. And not all of the disciples read or spoke in Greek, either.
That literally means of Judea. It's also in the NT and he's not quoting the OT so it has nothing to do with the septuigant or masoeretic. He was telling the Jews they are no longer special because christ came to give the Gentiles their spiritual inheritance as promised to them after the flood.
Exactly. Is a dog born in a stable a horse? Is a nigger born in Europe a European? Is a White born in China a Chinese? Then why would a jew born in Judea be a Judean?
>the OT so it has nothing to do with the septuigant
Okay if you want to play that game, then why isn't every Septuagint version correctly saying "jew" for "edom" and "White" for Israelite/Hebrew?
>He was telling the Jews they are no longer special because christ came to give the Gentiles their spiritual inheritance as promised to them after the flood.
That's not at all what he said. He never said "jew" or "gentile." Those are both modern jewed translations that make you follow this jewish antichrist narrative. "Gentile" simply means nations, and the context Paul was referring to were the tribes of Dan, Levi and Zebulon that left for Europe after Exodus but before Jesus. It never meant "non-Israelite," and jews aren't Israelites or Hebrews, so that's why Septuagint is also jewed and not the "end all be all non-jewed authority."
My response to this is going to be kind of long cause there's a lot to cover but bear with me. The whites who were the Israelites post exodus called themselves Israelites. Similar to how the Greeks are white yet called themselves Greek. When the other skin colors began to exist is up to debate because after the flood the entire world was white being descended from Noah. The Edmoites, Moabite, etc were not the Israelites of the time but the descendants of Ham, through Caanan who was cursed. That is why only Japheth and Shem were blessed by God and not Ham. The people's of Europe arrived after the flood through the descendants of Japheth, specifically Javon being historically recognized as the father of Greece. So the Israelites and European whites are two different people's. Gentile in its earliest form referred to the descendants of Japheth who inhabited the isles of gentiles. By the new testament it came to usually mean not the Hebrews. Also you can't deem all the Caananites as automatically evil and bad because as soon as the Israelites arrived in the promised land they began to interbreed. Jesus himself is descended from a Moabite who are explicitly stated to not be allowed to join the assembly of God, but through the grace of God Ruth was deemed worthy. God can raise a people from anything, even if whites are the chosen, which I believe, if we don't shape up God could easily make or choose a new people's.
>"*There is no Jew nor Greek nor is there slave nor free nor is there male and female. For you all are one in Christ Jesus.*" - Galatians 3:28
Yet Paul never said or wrote "jew." He said Ἰουδαῖος. Not jew. And not all of the disciples read or spoke in Greek, either.
Exactly. Is a dog born in a stable a horse? Is a nigger born in Europe a European? Is a White born in China a Chinese? Then why would a jew born in Judea be a Judean?
>the OT so it has nothing to do with the septuigant
Okay if you want to play that game, then why isn't every Septuagint version correctly saying "jew" for "edom" and "White" for Israelite/Hebrew?
>He was telling the Jews they are no longer special because christ came to give the Gentiles their spiritual inheritance as promised to them after the flood.
That's not at all what he said. He never said "jew" or "gentile." Those are both modern jewed translations that make you follow this jewish antichrist narrative. "Gentile" simply means nations, and the context Paul was referring to were the tribes of Dan, Levi and Zebulon that left for Europe after Exodus but before Jesus. It never meant "non-Israelite," and jews aren't Israelites or Hebrews, so that's why Septuagint is also jewed and not the "end all be all non-jewed authority."